It’s also going to make that porn more popular. Media bans don’t actually work because of how media demand works. Supply and demand don’t naturally coordinate for media exchange, except by apply risk to non-paying recipients of media. That’s how copyright works. If you apply risk to non-paying recipients for a different reason, economics doesn’t care about your reason. Just that you applied risk. Risk applied to paying parties goes into a different part of the formula. The result is total demand goes up (cash changing hand motivating production), but it becomes sold as a contraban.
D = CV*min(1,FR/FV)-CR, F(free) V(value) R(risk) C(commercial)
Because these are all distributions. Subtracting the CR distribution from that more complex part never gives you a zero distribution. But if FR is uniformly zero, demand goes to zero. Once you introduce FR you open the window of coordination (modifier of CV) to be non-zero. Because copyright enforcement is lax for pornography, FR is basically zero now. But it’s about to not be.
It’s the same reason commercial production of CSAM increases.
There is some explanation missing before this makes sense.
In which units is demand measured? In currency? In amounts of “media”?
What is free risk supposed to mean? And what is commercial risk? And how can it be the same unit as free and commercial value, and demand? 1€ risk? How do you apply it?
How can they be distributions? Are we talking about probability distributions? What if CV < CR
argh…
Where can I find answers?
Isn’t this the same country that has a pedo prince, and ties to the biggest pedo ring in modern history? Something about a Seville too…
It’s also going to make that porn more popular. Media bans don’t actually work because of how media demand works. Supply and demand don’t naturally coordinate for media exchange, except by apply risk to non-paying recipients of media. That’s how copyright works. If you apply risk to non-paying recipients for a different reason, economics doesn’t care about your reason. Just that you applied risk. Risk applied to paying parties goes into a different part of the formula. The result is total demand goes up (cash changing hand motivating production), but it becomes sold as a contraban.
D = CV*min(1,FR/FV)-CR, F(free) V(value) R(risk) C(commercial)
Because these are all distributions. Subtracting the CR distribution from that more complex part never gives you a zero distribution. But if FR is uniformly zero, demand goes to zero. Once you introduce FR you open the window of coordination (modifier of CV) to be non-zero. Because copyright enforcement is lax for pornography, FR is basically zero now. But it’s about to not be.
It’s the same reason commercial production of CSAM increases.
Ok, bye.
There is some explanation missing before this makes sense. In which units is demand measured? In currency? In amounts of “media”? What is free risk supposed to mean? And what is commercial risk? And how can it be the same unit as free and commercial value, and demand? 1€ risk? How do you apply it? How can they be distributions? Are we talking about probability distributions? What if CV < CR argh… Where can I find answers?
No.
I take it you mean Epstein? In which case plenty of countries have ties but predominantly US.
We do like our oranges and Spanish holidays.
I would lie too if my country was that embarrassing